At the risk of repeating myself: according to whose definition of the term "immanent realm" is this remotely in doubt? Sounds to me like you're creating needless obfuscation in the cause of "avoiding a headache" (that I for one wasn't actually having...).
If you argued, more monosyllabically, that the question of where the "otherworld" ended, and the transcendent began, was subtle and open to question, that I'd have to assent to. What's "beyond the world of experience" depends rather on ones definition of "world", and ones mode of "experience". (I think this is one of the themes of Gloranthan myths of mystic systems, indeed, given the stories of Nenduren, etc.)
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