> >Why haven't the Tarsh Exiles been conquered by the Lunar Empire and/or
> >Tarsh?
> They have been, at various times. They are, in 1621, ruled by the Empire in
> the same way that (for instance) the Scots were ruled by England.
This comment doesn't seem terribly clear to me. At various points in the history of our two nation, the scots and english have practiced just about every conceivable form of relationship, from English kings conquering the Scots to Scottish kings ascending the English throne.
Am I to assume that this is a reference to the Braveheart view of British history?
Cheers,
Graham
-- Graham Robinson The Stable Yard - Internet Solutions gjr_at_... http://www.thestableyard.net
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