> >And, having just checked, the difference between
> "ize" and "ise" is that
> >the "ize" spelling is derived from the Greek
> "izein" while "ise" is the
> >French version which comes from the Latin "izare".
Peter:
> Latin doesn't use Z so they wouldn't have an "izare"
> form. The
> closest is the post classical transformation of t
> (as in Latin and Gratis) to z (as in Lazio and
Grazie).
Really? I thought that looked a bit odd, but put it down to my Latin being rusty. Which still leaves the question of why in French it became an S?
Jane Williams
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