At 12:34 PM 4/6/2005 +0100, you wrote:
> > Latin doesn't use Z so they wouldn't have an "izare" > > form. The > > closest is the post classical transformation of t > > (as in Latin and Gratis) to z (as in Lazio and > > Grazie).
>Really? I thought that looked a bit odd, but put it >down to my Latin being rusty. Which still leaves the >question of why in French it became an S?