> Arrrgghhh!!! When did he do this, I've seen it mentioned by Greg in some
>Seminar transcripts but I can't find it anywhere in KoS (I take it that
it's
>in there somehwere, hiding from me; damned Boggles!). Isn't Argrath
killing
>gods a supremley *bad* thing? How did he do it? Isn't this merely proof
that
>he's a new incarnation of Shargash and therefore a new incarnation of
Arkat?
This also confuses me because I thought that the difference between the
Third Age and the Harshax's time (Fourth Age?) was that the gods have
become silent (no divination, DI or divine magic) rather than extinct. I'm
sure one of the Zin letters says as much (don't have my copy of KoS to
hand).
That's not to deny that the silence is because Argrath destroyed all the
gods without the knowledge of his people.
Jim.
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