> From: Peter Maranci <pmaranci_at_sunspot.tiac.net>
> A fighter has a skill of 100%. He casts Bladesharp 4 on his
> sword, adding 20% to his chance to hit, and +4 damage. In combat, he
> splits his attacks.
>
> The question: does he make each attack at 60%, or 70%? In other
> words, does he add the full Bladesharp effect to each attack, or is the
> increased chance to hit split between all attacks made in the round?
His chance to hit is 120%. If he choses to use that skill by splitting his
attack, the sum of the attack percentages remains the same.
OTOH, his damage *might* *be* +4 for either attack. I don't remember that bit being covered in the spell description. It seems to violate Conservation Of Effects, but a Sword Of Sharpness should damage +1 everytime *it* strikes, too, shouldn't it? As should a Fireblade damage 3D6 every time?
> On the other hand, I assume that a warrior with an 80% skill and a
> Bladesharp 4 does not get to split attacks at all. The skill must be his own.
The skill to split attacks must be fairly easy, as it only requires going
from 99% to 100%. Doing it effectively is the trick.
> But here's an interesting question: if a fighter has a 97% skill,
> and casts Strength 2 raising his chance to hit to 100%, does he then get
> to split attacks? From a character perspective, how does s/he know that
> this is now possible?
How does he know that it *isn't* when he is at 99%? And why does someone
whose "skill" come from his strength get to split attacks before the
Humakti Duck working against a -5% or worse penalty but who has learned
more? It is just a damned rule artifact, there to make bookkeeping easier,
like integer hit points and damage.
If you have to give an explanation, say that he could always split attacks, but at 100% he can do the wrist snap that makes it effective. The snap requires less strength when you have more intellectual skill or deftness, and vice versa.
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