How the West Was Written

From: Peter Larsen <plarsen_at_uri.edu>
Date: Sat, 11 Oct 2003 10:01:22 -0400


Greg Stafford says:

me:
> >>It's kind of hard to
>>>imagine this with characters representing sounds
>>or syllables,
>
>It is=C2=B4nt hard for me to imagine. I am studying=20
>Spanish and teaching English now, both of which=20
>use (mostly) the same characters. Yet Spanish=20
>has five vowel sounds, and English has something=20
>like 14 vowel sounds (or was it 26? And to make=20
>it more complex, English and American English=20
>have different vowel sounds even for the same=20
>words).

        Sure, but a written sentence in English=20 and Spanish are not mutually understandable=20 (although the attentive can translate very simple=20 sentences either way). My confusion over the=20 script in the West arises from the understanding=20 that everyone can read the _Abiding Book_, but=20 they pronounce what they read differently. (I am=20 sure I read this somewhere, but I cannot produce=20 the passage, so maybe I dreamt it.) Peter=20 Metcalfe says no, and he can usually cite chapter=20 and verse, so perhaps I misunderstood.

        So, If the written language of the=20
_Abiding Book_ is universally legible because=20 everyone has preserved the "Classical Western"=20 script in which it was written, even if each=20 culture has shifted the pronunciation somewhat, I=20 have no problem. If, additionally, each Western=20 culture (or most cultures) has a vernacular that=20 has drifted far enough from the common ancestral=20 language to be largely incomprehensible to the=20 others, and those vernaculars are written in=20 scripts devised from that of the _Abiding Book_=20 (or some other source) which make reading a=20 Western language other than one's own more=20 difficult, I still have no issue. Each Western=20 language can be further subdivided into dialects,=20 caste languages, etc making it difficult for a=20 Lord to know what the Farmer Women on his estate=20 are saying (and a good thing, too), and I am all=20 for it, especially if most of these common=20 languages have no scripts (what does a Farmer=20 need to write, anyway?). Surely the suggestion is=20 not that, when a Loskalmi liturgist and a=20 Seshnegi liturgist read the _Abiding Book_ to=20 their congregations, what comes out of their=20 mouths is so different as to constitute two=20 separate languages (assuming of course, they are=20 reading the Book verbatum and not translating the=20 stories into their vernaculars for the benefit of=20 the ignorant masses)?

        Is this the case? Or am I missing something?

Peter Larsen

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