No, it certainly isn't. But the option to make given magic "touch only" is clear in the book. (Personally, I would let it be done at range because... well, because it is cool.)
> So, if she couldn't normally use it actively, then if we were in an extended
> contest, and if it happened to be his turn to bid not hers (a game
> mechanic), then she could do the beam of black light thing, and if it was
> her turn, she'd have to wait and use it via a sword?
>
> This seems to me to be remarkably silly.
I agree. Which is why THIS can't be what the difference is. I just can't see it.
> > Exactly. Is there a difference between an augment use and a non-augment
> > use of magic to the Gloranthan Eye? I really am not sure.
>
> I can see specific cases (sometimes), but what we need is an overall generic
> difference.
Agreed.
LC
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