> Equating forced submission to overwhelming
> violent force with tacit consent is a fallacy,
> and an insult to the oppressed.
How about a concrete test of this? The next time that Julian, Nils, and I are at a con together, Nils and I will violently thrash Julian to a bloody pulp. Then, the next day, he'll have to fetch our beer and snacks for us. If he does, we'll say that he tactily consented. If not, we'll just thrash him again.
I think that would test the theory adequately, eh?
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