>> >>Rubbish. Equating forced submission to overwhelming violent >>force with tacit consent is a fallacy, and an insult to the >>oppressed.
Certainly looks as if you have.
>>You can make a case that a totalitarian (fascist, communist, >>whatever-ist) regime has the tacit consent of the people of >>their own country and it _may_ be true (usually not though), >>but when said regime crosses the border and occupies the >>neighbour, the people their don't give their consent, openly >>or tacitly.
In a democracy it is, in a totalitarian state it isn't. A regime which has taken power with force certainly wields political power, no matter how warlike.
>>>>The challenge then is for you to name one case where a >>>>non-democratic government is better. >>> >>>Theocracy. Vatican. >>> >>>Venice during the Renaissance. >>> >>>et cetera ad nauseam ... >> >>And now tell us why democracy wouldn't work/have worked as >>well or better.
Anyway, you haven't proved in any way that democracy wouldn't work/have worked as well or better.
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