Re: Changed magic in 2nd and 3rd Age

From: donald_at_zhp49pmj0WV-412qEh76LWF7Fa0J04aCMkple4mX-CU_qXP2kI8dUO25xG4dTlZJLemv7
Date: Wed, 17 Jun 2009 02:42:07 GMT


In message <h18lv1+t01v_at_eGroups.com> "ttrotsky2" writes:
>Donald Oddy:

>> That's assuming the copies are in the original language. If not
>> you've got mistranslations on top of that.
>
>They are in the original language; you don't translate the Abiding
>Book. Well, there's bound to be some weird protestant-type sect
>somewhere that does such a thing, but they're on the fringes already.
>It's like the medieval Bible always being in Latin, or the medieval
>Koran always being in classical Arabic. In fact, writing in the
>vernacular *at all* is considered a pretty nutty thing to do in the
>West.

The Bible wasn't originally written in Latin. The New Testament was a Greek translation from Aramaic, the language of the disciples. The Old Testament was originally Hebrew. Nor was Church Latin the same language as Roman Latin.

That's why I wasn't sure one way or the other.

It also means there are a reasonable number of scholars who are literate in the original language - as you suggest Brithini.

-- 
Donald Oddy
http://www.grove.demon.co.uk/

           

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